Indian Polity Online Quiz

Q 1 - In which of the following years, an independent Constituent Assembly, formed only of Indians, was convened?

A - 1934

B - 1943

C - 1945

D - 1946

Q 2 - Which one of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution makes the provisions to protect every monument or place or object of artistic or historic interest?

A - Article 49

B - Article 50

C - Article 51

D - Article 52

Q 3 - Right to Freedom does not includes …

A - The right to freedom of speech and expression

B - The right to acquire property and wealth

C - The right to move freely and reside in any part of the country

D - The right to practice any profession and occupation

Q 4 - Freedom of religion to individuals means to …

A - Exit from their religion

B - Embrace another religion

C - Have the freedom to interpret religious teachings differently

D - All a, b, & c

Q 5 - In reference to women’s representation in the Lok Sabha, how many seats are reserved them (in terms of percentage)?

A - 33

B - 50

C - 25

D - 0

Q 6 - Consider the following statements:

1. Members of the Lok Sabha are elected by adult universal suffrage and by means of a first-past-the-post system.

2. Members of the Lok Sabha hold their seats for five years or until the body is dissolved by the President.

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:

A - Only 1

B - Only 2

C - Both

D - Neither 1 nor 2

Q 7 - The Supreme Court of India starts functioning in its present building (located on Mathura Road in New Delhi) in 1958. Where was it functioning prior to this?

A - The Chamber of Princes in the Parliament House

B - The President House

C - The South Block, New Delhi

D - At the same place, but the building was old

Q 8 - Porto Alegre, a city in Brazil has achieved the lowest number of infant deaths rate as compared to most other cities of the world; which among the following is the main reason behind this achievement?

A - The city’s water department has achieved universal access to safe water

B - The city has achieved 100% literacy rate

C - The health care facility of the city is rated as fist in the world

D - People are well informed about their health care and they use only hygienic materials

Q 9 - Which one of the following statements correctly refers to the vertical distribution of powers?

A - Power is shared among different organs of government

B - It distributes the power to the different tiers of governments

C - It refers to separation of the subject matter on which concern government has got the power to rule

D - In this system, government at the lower level has to act as per the directions of the government at the higher level

Q 10 - Which among the following scheduled languages is the second largest spoken in India?

A - Bengali

B - Gujarati

C - Telugu

D - Marathi

Q 11 - The movement, namely Narmada Bachao Andolan, was related to the issue of:

A - Creation of Sardar Sarovar dam on the Narmada River

B - To provide the rehabilitation and adequate compensation to the displaced people from Narmada valley.

C - Protection of the biodiversity of the Narmada valley

D - To protect and preserve the Narmada river form the excessive water pollution

Q 12 - What is the condition for the recognition as a National party by the Election Commission of India?

A - A party must secure at least six per cent of the total votes in the Lok-Sabha elections.

B - A party must secure at least four seats in the Lok-Sabha elections or Assembly elections in four States.

C - A party must secure at least six per cent of the total votes and win at least four seats in the Lok-Sabha elections or Assembly elections in four States.

D - A party must secure at least six per cent of the total votes or win at least four seats in the Lok-Sabha elections and Assembly elections in four States.

Q 13 - Which one of the following statements explains the concept of ‘Harm Principle’ in the context of contemporary political theory?

A - It gives priority to individual liberty rather on equality, free market, and minimal role of the state

B - Freedom as the expansion of opportunities to express one’s self

C - Individuals’ liberty is effect to the extends of causing harm to only one’s self to which the state has no business to interfere with

D - Individuals’ liberty is inviolable and the state has no business to interfere except to prevent causing injury to others

Q 14 - Which one of the following statements is not correct in reference to the citizenship of India?

A - Person who has his domicile in the territory of India

B - Person who was born in the territory of India

C - Person whose parents was born in the territory of India

D - Who has been ordinarily resident in the territory of India for not less than seven years immediately preceding the commencement of the constitution of India

Q 15 - Which one of the following statements does not explain the broader notion of Development?

A - It considers the development in terms of degree of improvement in the quality of life of all the people of the country

B - It measures the development of a country in terms of the ‘Human Development Index’ declared by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)

C - It considers that measuring the development in terms of the economic growth rate would be an adequate and correct

D - It ranks countries on the basis of their performance in social indicators like literacy and education levels, life expectancy and maternal mortality rates.

Q 16 - Which one of the following countries has recently turned to democratic by abolishing the Monarchies system?

A - Nepal

B - Myanmar

C - Saudi Arabia

D - Bhutan

Q 17 - What is the limit of expenditure that a candidate is permitted to spend in his/her constituency for a Lok Sabha Election?

A - Rs. 50 lakh

B - Rs. 70 lakh

C - Rs. 40 lakh

D - Rs. 65 lakh

Q 18 - Which one of the following statements is not correct about judicial system in India?

A - Judges of the Supreme Court and the High Courts are appointed by the President

B - Judges of the Supreme Court and the High Courts can be removed by the President

C - Decisions of the supreme court is binding on all courts in India

D - Supreme Court has the power to interpret any provision of the Constitution

Q 19 - Which one of the following is not correctly matched?

List AList B

A - People have the supreme right to make decision1) Sovereign

B - Head of the state is an elected person2) Republic

C - People should live like brothers and sisters3) Fraternity

D - Government favor the religion of majority4) Secular

Q 20 - The idea of ‘Rule of Law’ is taken from ....

A - German Constitution

B - French Constitution

C - British Constitution

D - The US Constitution